T
tess
Member
Is there any reason the semi-variance is phrased as being 'proportional' to variance if returns on assets are symmetrically distributed?
Would it be more precise to say half the variance?
If semi-variance is proportional to variance, that implies semi-variance = k * variance but here k is specifically 1/2, if returns on assets are symmetrically distributed.
Would it be more precise to say half the variance?
If semi-variance is proportional to variance, that implies semi-variance = k * variance but here k is specifically 1/2, if returns on assets are symmetrically distributed.