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Ch 4 p6 - 'semi-variance is proportional to variance' in symmetrical cases

T

tess

Member
Is there any reason the semi-variance is phrased as being 'proportional' to variance if returns on assets are symmetrically distributed?

Would it be more precise to say half the variance?

If semi-variance is proportional to variance, that implies semi-variance = k * variance but here k is specifically 1/2, if returns on assets are symmetrically distributed.
 
Hi Tess,

Yes, you are absolutely correct. Semi-variance is exactly half the variance if the returns on the assets are symmetrically distributed.

This is due to the fact that for a symmetric distribution the mean is equal to the median of the distribution.

Let me know if this helps.

Cheers,
Kaustav
 
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