Sometimes when no standard mortality table has been produced for female lives, actuaries use the corresponding male table, but apply an “age rating” of 4 years (say), ie they consider a female aged x to be equivalent to a male aged x-4 . Explain the rationale underlying this approach. Please Tutor.
It's a proxy. The age adjustment tends to be based on actual experience analysis looking at female lives compared to a standard male mortality table. It isn't a number that is plucked randomly out of the air.
I'll look it up on the solution guide on the answer bank,but I'd like to hear anyone's answer in this platform.
Thanks bystander.This is an interesting subject and also tough hey. Well, some people will just say "....CT5 is not that difficult.You just need practice it a lot...". Thats them.
