K
kartik_newpro
Member
This might come across as a stupid question.
When calculating the cost of debt capital why is the cost (or interest payable) multiplied by 1 - tax rate?
Interest is paid out of pre-tax profits, so why is tax deducted for calculating the cost of debt capital? I will quote from the notes:
"The cost of debt capital should be taken as the cost in real terms of new borrowing by the company. This is calculated by taking an appropriate margin over the current expected total real return on index-linked bonds, having regard to the company's credit rating, and multiplying by (1-t), where t is the assumed rate of corporation tax"
"This is because interest payments of C say, are paid out of pre-tax profits. Hence the effective cost to shareholders, in terms of the reduction in the post-tax profits that are available to pay dividends, is only (1-t) x C"
I know I am missing a major point here. Just guide me through this.
When calculating the cost of debt capital why is the cost (or interest payable) multiplied by 1 - tax rate?
Interest is paid out of pre-tax profits, so why is tax deducted for calculating the cost of debt capital? I will quote from the notes:
"The cost of debt capital should be taken as the cost in real terms of new borrowing by the company. This is calculated by taking an appropriate margin over the current expected total real return on index-linked bonds, having regard to the company's credit rating, and multiplying by (1-t), where t is the assumed rate of corporation tax"
"This is because interest payments of C say, are paid out of pre-tax profits. Hence the effective cost to shareholders, in terms of the reduction in the post-tax profits that are available to pay dividends, is only (1-t) x C"
I know I am missing a major point here. Just guide me through this.